A not-so-commented on incident in the Wales-France game: the French hooker's disallowed try after a stupid pass from his opposite number - called back for no advantage.
This has had me thinking: if the Welsh hooker had kicked the ball, it'd have probably been advantage over - a kick under no pressure.
So why would you treat a big wound-up pass differently? He was still under no pressure and used the ball as he wished.
I can see a few arguments either way, but it seems a bit of an inconsistency.
This has had me thinking: if the Welsh hooker had kicked the ball, it'd have probably been advantage over - a kick under no pressure.
So why would you treat a big wound-up pass differently? He was still under no pressure and used the ball as he wished.
I can see a few arguments either way, but it seems a bit of an inconsistency.